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CLASS #22: MONETARY POLICY AND THE UNEMPLOYMENT/INFLATION TRADE OFF
There is always a temporary tradeoff between inflation and unemployment; there is no permanent tradeoff. The temporary tradeoff comes not from inflation per se, but from unanticipated inflation, which generally means, from a rising rate of inflation.
Milton Friedman
The Phillips Curve: an empirical regularity
The Expectations Augmented Phillips Curve
from the misperception theory:

\begin{displaymath}\ln{Y_t}=\ln{\bar{Y}}+b(\ln{P_t}-\ln{P_t^e})\end{displaymath}

Let us add and subtract $\ln{P_{t-1}}$ from the right hand side:

\begin{displaymath}\ln{Y_t}=\ln{\bar{Y}}+b(\ln{P_t}-\ln{P_{t-1}}-(\ln{P_t^e}-\ln{P_{t-1}}))=\end{displaymath}


\begin{displaymath}=\ln{\bar{Y}}+b(\pi_t-\pi_t^e)\end{displaymath}

and let us remember Okun's Law:

\begin{displaymath}\ln{Y_t}-\ln{\bar{Y}}=-a(u_t-\bar{u})\end{displaymath}

We obtain a ``theoretical version" of the Phillips curve:

\begin{displaymath}u_t-\bar{u}=-\theta(\pi_t-\pi_t^e)\end{displaymath}

where $\theta=\frac{b}{a}$.
Policy Games
Let us assume that the Central Bank can control inflation (all it can control, in fact, is money supply).
Let us say that for political/economic reasons the Central Bank wants to minimize both unemployment and inflation, that is, its objective function is:

\begin{displaymath}min_{\{u,\pi\}} u^2+\gamma \pi^2\end{displaymath}

Of course, the Central Bank takes into account that there is something called Phillips curve out there, so that it cannot minimize both. The constraint is therefore:

\begin{displaymath}u_t-\bar{u}=-\theta(\pi_t-\pi_t^e)\end{displaymath}

After substituting the constraint in the objective function, the problem for the Central Bank becomes:

\begin{displaymath}min_{\{\pi\}} (\bar{u}-\theta(\pi_t-\pi_t^e))^2+\gamma \pi^2\end{displaymath}

with respect to $\pi$. The private sector is contracting their wages, debt contracts... they want to predict inflation as good as they can, otherwise it is going to be bad news for somebody (for workers if inflation is above expectations, for entrepreneurs is inflation is below expectations). Say that the Central Bank could commit to an inflation rate $\pi^c$, announce it today, and have the public believe it.
Since the public is forming expectations on the basis of the Central Bank's announcement, it is clear that $\pi_t^e=\pi^c=\pi_t$. So nobody is fooled, and the Central Bank cannot ``run the Phillips curve".
Of course, the best thing to do for the Central Bank is to set $\pi^c=0$, so at least it has zero inflation, even if it has no gain on the unemployment side. Let us consider the more realistic case where the Central Bank cannot commit itself. Once the private sector has formed the inflationary expectations $\pi_t^e$, the Central Bank takes them as given as chooses $\pi$ so to maximize its objective function.
The first order condition is:

\begin{displaymath}-2 \theta (\bar{u}-\theta(\pi_t-\pi_t^e)) + 2 \gamma \pi=0\end{displaymath}

Which deliver the solution:

\begin{displaymath}\pi_t= \frac{\theta}{\gamma +\theta^2} \bar{u} +
\frac{\theta^2}{\gamma +\theta^2} \pi_t^e\end{displaymath}

However, the private sector knows how the Central Bank is going to behave. So it sets $\pi_t^e$ at a level $\pi^*$ such that $\pi_t=\pi_t^e=\pi^*$:

\begin{displaymath}\pi^*= \frac{\theta}{\gamma +\theta^2} \bar{u} +
\frac{\theta^2}{\gamma +\theta^2} \pi^*\end{displaymath}


\begin{displaymath}\pi^*= \frac{\theta}{\gamma} \bar{u}\end{displaymath}

What is the result?

 
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Marco Del Negro
2000-04-24