product , income, and expenditure approach
why do the three approaches (should) deliver the same result?
Income-Expenditure identity:
Uses of savings identity: S=I+CA
where CA=NX+NFP
what do savings have to do with net exports?
Capital Account= increase in foreign-owned assets in Mexico - increase in
Mexican owned assets abroad (private and official) = -CA
this is why financial crises are often preceded by large CA deficits: the
country had been accumulating debt (importing more than exporting) which
-for different reasons- was not able to repay. And also why they are
followed by CA surpluses: the country is paying back all- or part of- the
debt.
private and government savings:
Sp=I-Sg+CA (twin deficits)
Low savings in Latin America (and therefore, either Current Account
deficits or low Investment) are generally not caused by Government
dissavings (Sg<0), but by very low private savings
therefore we need a model that explains private consumption (and
implicitly private savings as well)
Permanent Income Model
If utility function is Cobb-Douglas:
in terms of units of the tradable good X:
as long as the relative prices of non tradable goods are different across
countries, the standards of living (real income) corresponding to a given
amount of money (US$, Pesos) are different.
This is why Mexican GDP is roughly a fifth of US GDP when measured in $, and only a third when measured in "real" terms, that is, in terms of utility levels.
the impact of interest rate increases on savings: substitution and income effect.
the intertemporal trade-off:
Marginal Rate of Substitution (MRS) = Marginal
Rate of Transformation (MRT)
Since individuals enjoy to consume roughly an equal amount in
both periods, if can borrow and lend they will try to smooth
consumption over time: their consumption will not depend on the
time pattern of income, but only on its present value, that is, the
permanent income
if utility is logarithmic and
:
in a closed -endowment- economy people are bound to consume their income,
so what the theory delivers is a prediction for the equilibrium real
interest rate
the timing of taxes is irrelevant, for a given time pattern
of government spending
where do we get Ricardian Equivalence from?
Permanent Income:
+ Intertemporal Budget Constraint of the Government:
Holds also in a closed economy
important policy implication: reducing current taxes is no way of
stimulating consumption, because consumers understand this and will save
more in order to be able to pay for higher future taxes
borrowing constraints
countries that are growing tend to run CA deficits - other things being equal
countries that have high temporary government spending (wars) tend
to run CA deficits - other things being equal
second important implication from Ricardian equivalence: raising current
taxes has no impact whatsoever on the CA. even if Sg increases, Sp
will decrease (people know that they will pay less taxes tomorrow) and the
CA will not be affected
welfare gains from capital mobility in an endowment economy